Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 21.06.2025 11:55
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Was Daenerys' downfall inevitable after she left Meereen in Game of Thrones?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
How would you spank me if I had been sent home from a school camp because of my poor behavior?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Do you have any fantasies you are ashamed of?
You'll usually find your answer there.